I want to go over another doctrine, which is very clear in Scripture, and that is that nobody can see God the Father.
The Bible says, Exodus chapter 33, verse 20, and he said,
Thou canst not see my face, for there shall no man see me and live.
John 1 18, No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
John 6 46, Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father.
And then 1 John 4 12, No man hath seen God at any time.
If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us.
And then 1 Timothy 6 16, Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto,
whom no man hath seen nor can see, to whom be honor and power everlasting. Amen.
Now notice that in Exodus chapter 33, verse 20, the person speaking said, No man can see me.
So he's using personal pronouns. The modalist doctrine teaches that one God is one person, and that Jesus is the Father.
So we can already see that nobody can ever see God, which would be the Father, or nobody ever has seen him, nor can they see him.
But the Bible says concerning Jesus in 1 Corinthians 15 6, After that he was seen of above 500 brethren at once,
of whom the greater part remaineth to this present, but some are fallen asleep.
John 20 29, Jesus saith unto them, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed, blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.
Matthew chapter 24 verse 30, And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven, and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn,
and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
So it's obvious that Jesus was seen by many people. I mean, that's the only thing that makes sense.
Obviously, Jesus didn't go around preaching the gospel invisible, okay?
People weren't just following around an invisible man and saying, Oh, I wonder where he went, okay?
It was an actual person. He was an actual man on earth. People saw him.
Now, 1 John 4 12 and 1 Timothy 6 16 was written after Jesus' ministry, okay?
A few decades after his ministry. So in those epistles, they say no man has seen him or nobody has seen God at any time.
That's because it's referring to God the Father and not the Son of God, Jesus Christ.
Therefore, since Jesus was seen and the Bible says that nobody has ever seen the Father, Jesus is not the Father. It's simple.
To say otherwise is to contradict clear scripture.
It's not only that, but in the Old Testament, you have the instances in Genesis 32 and Judges 13
when a man appears to Jacob and to Manoah, and both of them claim that they've seen the face of God.
Obviously, the Bible says that nobody can see the face of the Father, so that means only one thing,
that there is another person who is the true God, who is also the true God, who was seen by Jacob and Manoah, and that's Jesus, okay?